1. Effective techniques for facilitating rapport with patients includes the use of:
A. Open-ended questions. B. Understandable, nonjudgemental language. C. Normalizing language. D. All of the above.2. In addition to obtaining a behavioral risk assessment, a comprehensive STD/HIV risk assessment should include STD screening, because STDs are biologic markers of risk, particularly for HIV acquisition and transmission among some MSM.
A. True B. False3. HPV vaccination is recommended through age 26 years for all of the following, except for:
A. Females that have not received any or all of the vaccine doses. B. Males that have not received any or all of the vaccine doses. C. Persons with HIV infection. D. Men who have sex with men.4. Women whose sexual partners have used condoms may benefit from a hierarchical message that includes condoms, whereas women without such experience might benefit more from an abstinence-only message.
A. True B. False5. Consistent and correct use of latex condoms reduces the risk for all of the following, except:
A. HPV infection and HPV-associated diseases B. Genital herpes C. Hepatitis A D. Syphilis6. Latex condoms should not be used beyond their expiration date or more than _____ after the manufacturing date.
A. 1 year B. 5 years C. 8 years D. 10 years7. Natural membrane condoms have pores small enough to prevent the passage of which of the following?
A. Sperm B. HIV C. HBV D. All of the above8. Spermicides containing N-9 have been associated with a decreased risk for HIV infection.
A. True B. False9. Male circumcision reduces the risk for HIV and some STDs in heterosexual men.
A. True B. False10. The U.S. Public Health Service recommends that PrEP be considered as a prevention option for persons who sexual or injection behaviors and epidemiologic context place them as substantial risk for acquiring HIV infection.
A. True B. False11. Serosorting is not recommended for which of the following reasons?
A. Too many MSM who have HIV do not know they are infected because they have not been tested for HIV recently. B. Men's assumptions about the HIV status of their partners might be wrong. C. Some men with HIV infection might not disclose or may misrepresent their HIV status. D. All of the above.12. Retesting for HIV during which trimester of pregnancy is recommended for women at high risk for acquiring HIV infection?
A. The first trimester. B. The second trimester. C. The third trimester. D. Testing should be performed during each trimester for women at high risk.13. Any woman who delivers a stillborn infant should be tested for:
A. Syphilis B. HIV C. Hepatitis B D. All of the above14. All pregnant women should be routinely tested for hepatitis B surface antigen at the first prenatal visit unless they have been previously vaccinated.
A. True B. False15. Which disease, if acquired in children after the neonatal period, strongly suggest sexual contact?
A. Gonorrhea B. Syphilis C. Chlamydia D. All of the above16. Which of the following screening tests should be performed at least annually for sexually active MSM, including those with HIV infection?
A. A test for urethral infection with N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis in men who have had insertive intercourse during the preceding year. B. A test for rectal infection with N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis in men who have had receptive anal intercourse during the preceding year. C. A test for pharyngeal infection with N. gonorrhoeae in men who have had receptive oral intercourse during the preceding year. D. All of the above.17. Routine screening for HCV infection is recommended for all pregnant women.
A. True B. False18. Persons who have an M. genitalium infection and HIV infection should receive the same treatment regimen as those who are HIV negative.
A. True B. False19. U.S. guidelines recommend all persons with HIV infection diagnosed to be offered effective antiretroviral therapy.
A. True B. False20. Some STDs, especially rectal chlamydia, are a risk marker for HIV acquisition.
A. True B. False21. Providing prevention counseling in conjunction with HIV diagnostic testing or as part of HIV screening programs is required in health-care settings.
A. True B. False22. Nurses should be knowledgable about the symptoms and signs of acute retroviral syndrome, which develop in 50% - 90% of persons within the first few weeks after they become infected with HIV. Acute retroviral syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except for:
A. Skin rash B. Fever C. Diarrhea D. Lymphadenopathy23. Because early treatment decreases the possibility of transmission, public health standards require presumptive treatment for any patient with a suspected case of infectious syphilis at the initial visit, even before test results are available.
A. True B. False24. Which of the following therapies should be provided for patients who have severe HSV disease or complications that necessitate hospitalization?
A. 800 mg of acyclovir orally three times a day for 5 days. B. 5-10 mg/kg intravenous acyclovir every 8 hours for 2-7 days followed by oral antiviral therapy to complete at least 10 days of total therapy. C. 1 gram of valacyclovir orally twice a day for 3 days. D. 1 gram of famciclovir orally twice a day for 2 days.25. The effectiveness of male latex condoms, which when used consistently and correctly can eliminate the risk for genital herpes transmission.
A. True B. False26. Suppressive anti-HSV therapy in persons with HIV infection does which of the following?
A. Reduces the risk for HIV transmission. B. Reduces the risk for HSV-1 transmission. C. Reduces the risk for HSV-2 transmission. D. None of the above.27. All acyclovir-resistant strains are also resistant to valacyclovir, and most are resistant to famciclovir.
A. True B. False28. Which of the following is the preferred drug for treating persons in all stages of syphilis?
A. Penicillin G administered parenterally B. Benzathine penicillin C. Procaine penicillin D. Oral penicillin29. Which of the following sex partners of persons with syphilis are considered at risk for infection and should be confidentially notified of the exposure and need for evaluation?
A. Partners who have had sexual contact within 3 months plus the duration of symptoms for persons who receive a diagnosis or primary syphilis. B. Partners who have had sexual contact within 3 months plus duration of symptoms for those with secondary syphilis. C. Partners who have had sexual contact within 6 months plus the duration of symptoms for persons who received a diagnosis of primary syphilis. D. Partners who have had sexual contact within 1 year plus duration of symptoms for those with secondary syphilis.30. Azithromycin should be used with caution:
A. In men who have sex with men. B. In pregnant women. C. When treatment with penicillin or doxycycline is not feasible. D. In persons with HIV.31. Missed doses of penicillin are not acceptable for pregnant women receiving therapy for latent syphilis and those who miss any dose of therapy must repeat the full course of therapy.
A. True B. False32. Penicillin G is the only known effective antimicrobial for preventing maternal transmission to the fetus and treating fetal infection.
A. True B. False33. Of persons reporting a penicillin allergy, 10% - 15% have a positive skin test suggestive of a penicillin allergy; these persons are at risk for which type of allergic response to penicillin leading to urticaria, angioedema, or anaphylaxis?
A. IgA-mediated allergic response B. IgE-mediated allergic response C. IgG-mediated allergic response D. IgM-mediated allergic response34. To maximize compliance with recommended therapies, medications for NGU should be dispensed onsite in the clinic, and regardless of the number of doses involved in the regimen, the first should be directly observed.
A. True B. False35. Recent studies have shown that the most common cause of persistent or recurrent NGU is:
A. C. trachomatis B. U. urealyticum C. M. genitalium D. T. vaginalis36. Persons with persistent or recurrent NGU after presumptive treatment for M. genitalium or T. vaginalis should be:
A. Referred to a urologist. B. Treated with 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose. C. Treated with 400 mg of moxifloxacin orally once daily for 7 days. D. Treated with 2 g of metronidazole or tinidazole orally in a single dose.37. A doxycycline delayed-release 200 mg tablet administered daily for 7 days is as effective as generic doxycycline 50 mg twice daily for 7 days for treatment of urogenital C. trachomatis infection in men and women, but has a higher frequency of gastrointestinal side effects.
A. True B. False38. To avoid reinfection, sex partners should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until they and their sex partners have been adequately treated, which is _____ days after a single-dose regiment, and have resolved any symptoms.
A. 3 B. 7 C. 10 D. 1439. In 2007, emergence of cephalosporin-resistant N. gonorrhoeae in the United States prompted CDC to cease recommending cephalosporins for treatment of gonorrhea, leaving fluoroquinolones as the only remaining class of antimicrobials available for treatment of gonorrhea in the United States.
A. True B. False40. Persons who have gonorrhea and HIV infection should receive the same treatment regimen as those who are HIV negative.
A. True B. False41. Erythromycin (0.5%) ophthalmic ointment in each eye in a single application at birth prevents:
A. Gonococcal ophthalmia B. Chlamydial ophthalmia C. Nasopharyngeal colonization by C. trachomatis D. All of the above42. To reduce the possibility of a disulfiram-like reaction, abstinence from alcohol use should continue for _____ hours after completion of tinidazole.
A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 9643. The nitroimidazoles are the only class of antimicrobial medications known to be effective against T. vaginalis infections.
A. True B. False44. Which of the following symptoms is specific for VVC?
A. Pruritus B. External dysuria C. Abnormal vaginal discharge D. None of the above45. The risk for PID associated with IUD use is primarily confined to the first 3 weeks after insertion, and should promptly be removed if the IUD user receives a diagnosis of PID.
A. True B. False46. All of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccines are true, except for:
A. All HPV vaccines are administered as a 3-dose series of IM injections over a 6-month period. B. HPV vaccines are safe and recommended for use in pregnant women. C. Boys and men aged 13-21 years who have not started or completed the vaccine series should receive the vaccine. D. For previously unvaccinated, immunocompromised persons, including persons with HIV infection, and MSM, vaccination is recommended through age 26 years.47. The types of HPV that cause genital warts can also cause cancer.
A. True B. False48. Women with genital warts need Pap tests more often than other women.
A. True B. False49. HPV might remain present and can still be transmitted to partners even after the warts are gone.
A. True B. False50. HPV testing should not be performed in which of the following situations?
A. Deciding whether to vaccinate against HPV. B. Testing women aged less than 30 years as part of routine cervical cancer screening. C. Testing oral or anal specimens. D. All of the above.51. The use of ceftriaxone is contraindicated for patients who have had which of the following reactions from an IgE mediated penicillin allergy?
A. Anaphylaxis B. Stevens Johnson syndrom C. Toxic epidermal necrolysis D. All of the above52. If a nurse has reasonable cause to suspect child abuse, a report must be made.
A. True B. FalseCopyright © 2024 Cheap Nursing CEUs
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